Editor for this issue: Ann Dizdar <dizdar
tam2000.tamu.edu>
In an off-the-list note, Hartmut Haberland suggested that my reading of Mark Lewellen's posting (in my previous one) probably does not quite match the one intended: I had understood Lewellen as claiming that Danish might have been classified as a German dialect, whereas what he probably intended was that it couldn't because the differences at the borderline between the two languages are too great. So apparently we agree: don't let emotion sway your judgment and reading abilities. It may be of some general interest that I realised I would not have reacted the same way if anybody had suggested that the (mainland, at least) Scandinavian languages might have had just one common standard. At the same time, I am convinced that one could find a Norwegian who would, and for the same reason I reacted against Danish being classified as more or less a German dialect: Denmark has been a dominating power, and Danish was the language of administration and culture for a very long time (I understand that the Norwegian written language has developed so fast in the last century that it is now easier for a Danish high school student than for a Norwegian one to read Ibsen in the original). So perhaps a language is a dialect that WANTS to have a bureaucracy, army, navy, etc to be able to fend off the big guys from across the street who claim that it is just a dialect and not entitled to a bureaucracy of its own. And probably such a wish will arise only where a sufficient (possibly small) number of isoglosses are clustered, AND this fact is coupled with other perceived cultural differences. Ole Ravnholt Institut for Kommunikation Aalborg Universitet Langagervej 8 DK-9220 Aalborg =D8 Danmark email: ravnholtMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuehum.auc.dk phone: +45 98 15 42 11 - 7114
The 19c use of "dialect" was not pejorative, not limited to "savages", and not used only for unwritten languages: prestige languages like Ancient Greek, German, and English all had dialects in 19c terminology. The Greek dialects were even written, and the Greek language did not have an army or a bureaucracy until Alexander. Africa and Asia did have languages (Chinese, Persian, Arabic) as well as dialects. On the other hand, many philologists did believe that there were fundamental differences between the languages of "civilized" peoples and others. F. Max Mueller, for instance, believed that comparative philology could not be profitably applied to the Turanian languages (non-Indo-European languages of Asia). Surely someone must have systematically studied the history of the various meanings of the words "dialect", "language", etc.? -sMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
Forwarded message: >From bodomoMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueCsli.Stanford.EDU Mon Sep 25 05:51:44 1995 Message-Id: <199509250951.CAA15005
Csli.Stanford.EDU> To: avaldez Cc: bodomo
Csli.Stanford.EDU (Adams Bodomo) X-Mailer: ELM [version 2.4 PL24alpha3] Mime-Version: 1.0 Anthea Fraser GUPTA <ellgupta
nus.sg> writes: "The original Philippines problems was an extension of definition (1),where an assumption had been made in a text that if there was no standard language, the thing was a dialect. This is what led (and leads) to 19C (and modern) writers talking about "European languages" vs. "Indian and African dialects"." This is basically true in the Ghanaian context, especially during the period before independence in 1957. Infact, besides the dichotomy between "language" and "dialect", with the former reserved for the colonial speech form (English) and the latter for Ghanaian speech forms, there is a third term, "vernacular" or even "vernacular language" also reserved for Ghanaian speech forms. Consider the way the terms "dialect" and "vernacularS are used in the excerpt below, which is from a 1956 colonial administration document, justifying why English should be taught in place of Ghanaian languages: 'It is pointless to teach any of the vernacular languages as a subject in schools; for such insignificant and uncultivated local dialects can never become so flexible as to assimilate readily new words, and to expand their vocabularies to meet new situations........their absence of literature discredits them and the use of any of them as a medium of expression.' This was apparently translated into policy and so even as late as 1970 some of us were severely whipped or, if lucky, made write a thousand or so times the following sentence : "I will never speak vernacular in school", "I wil never speak vernacular in school"..... I think linguists have done a good job and they should even strive harder to let non-linguists know that all languages, whether written or unwritten, are LANGUAGES, each of which has its own set of dialects (i.e. geographical, temporal and social variants of a particular language). Adams Bodomo