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One of my colleagues who is not on the List would like to know if there are any modern languages with a voiced bilabial fricative. He realizes there is an IPA symbol for the sound, but is looking for examples from existing languages. Please reply directly to me and I'll post a summary if it seems appropriate. Thanks in advance from both of us. --Kathleen DotyMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
What I take to be a typographical error in Joachim Grabowski's posting on spatial prepositions (namely _davant_ for current French _devant_) had me reaching for my _Petit Robert_. Yes, current _devant_ derives from _d'avant_. Now the localist hypothesis suggests that temporal location should be described in terms of spatial location. Here we seem to have a case where spatial location is described using the temporal words as a metaphor. Are there many such cases that people are aware of? I realise this is tangential to Joachim's query, but it strikes me as a point of interest. Or perhaps the localist hypothesis has developed in the last ten years or so? Laurie.BAUERMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuevuw.ac.nz Department of Linguistics, Victoria University, PO Box 600, Wellington, New Zealand Ph: +64 4 472 1000 x 8800 Fax: +64 4 471 2070
I am working on cleft sentences in English discourse and read in O. Jespersen that "The Irish make an excessive use of cleft sentences: Is it reading your [sic] are? | it is angry that he was | it's right weel you look | It's yourself should have been there...." Has anyone researched why this claim is so, if it is? While I'm interested in syntactic and semantic issues with clefts, is something historical going on here with Irish-English? If there is, it might prove interesting for syntax/semantics. I'll post a summary of replies. Dennis Perzanowski dennispMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueaic.nrl.navy.mil
Does there exist such a language that in the translation of the 'self' (as part of 'himself') the translation comes out as a body part, such as head, neck, etc... Thank you- -David Gohre -DgohreMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuecw-f1.umd.umich.edu