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|Subject:||When Was Dissimilation First Documented?|
|Question:||Kind Linguists. I am tickled pink to have found your WEB page this morning. I have searched your Q&A archives, and I don't think my question was asked before. My apologies if I missed it. I frame the question: I am an amateur at this, but my love for this science is unbounded. There are certain phenomena in the history of the Hebrew Language, which seem best explained by the phenomena of Dissimilation. These are conclusions published by several noted scholars in the field. No problem. But then there are explanations offered by alternate Hebraicists, who make no mention of Dissimilation. Perhaps they didn't know about this concept, given the older date-stamp on their writings. If Dissimilation was unknown or undefined at a certain point in time in the past, maybe we can expect older references to be silent on the matter. Might any of you know when Dissimilation was first proposed, discovered or explained. I'll be more specific. The reference I question, which makes no mention of Dissimilation, was published in 1848. Was dissimilation widely understood then? Humbly and gratefully submitted, Michael A. Banak|
|From:||Michael A. Banak|
|As yet there have been no replies to this question.|